## Question on Quiz#4 problem 9

by Kat
(Sacramento)

You have been asked to dilute and repackage 1 Liter of a 20% solution into 1 pint bottles of 5% solution. How many bottles will you be able to fill?

Can you explain how I start? I don't understand.

reply: (Keith) This question is very similar to the one shown
on this page. The easiest way to do these is using the Algebra shortcut:

(C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2)

(.20)(1000ml) = (.05)(X)

200    =    .05X

___           ____

.05             .05

4000        =        X

4000ML ÷ 480Ml (1 pint) = 8.33

So, you could fill 8 bottles.

## Comments for Question on Quiz#4 problem 9

 Jul 08, 2011 another way at the end of the answer by: Anonymous Your way is best but you could also divide the 4000ml by 30ml *(30ml per oz.)and get 133.33 oz. and divide that by 16 (16 oz per pint)to get 8.33 too.

 Aug 02, 2010 Return to Question on Quiz#4 problem 9 by: Anonymous *20/100=?/1000 =20000/100 =200ml *5/100=?/480ml 2400/100 =24 so 200/24=8 i just want to say 1pint = 480ml

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